Fortune Telling Collection - Free divination - How does the Son of God explain in Genesis?
How does the Son of God explain in Genesis?
:{Fe"[Q6Oy0
U y l"nz, FK3i\0 There are three main views on the identification of "sons of God": (1) they are fallen angels, or (2) they are powerful human rulers, or (3) they are descendants of just Seth and evil Cain. The evidence of the first view is that the "son of God" in the Old Testament often refers to angels (Job1:6; 2: 1; 38:7)。 But the problem with this view is that Matthew 22: 30 says that angels don't get married. The Bible does not say that angels are sexual or fertile. The second and third views do not have this problem.
-w; Sg n#va ]6s`0 Wilderness Blog q) T-P _ X3c
The weakness of views 2 and 3 is that if ordinary human males marry ordinary human females, their descendants probably won't have "giants" or "ancient celebrities". Besides, if God never forbade powerful human males or descendants of Seth from marrying ordinary human females or descendants of Cain, why did God decide to flood the earth (Genesis 6: 5-7)? The verdict in Genesis 6: 5-7 is related to what happened in Genesis 6: 1-4. Only the lewd marriage between fallen angels and human women should be so severely punished.
]; Kfc}8O0 Wilderness Blog) RsCs, RPBa
Wilderness blog 4Lm7DsH*PBB
In my opinion, the first view is most in line with the situation at that time. Yes, it seems "contradictory" to say that angels have no gender, and that "the son of God" is fallen angels, who has children with human women. However, although angels are spirits (Hebrews 1: 14), they can appear in human form (Kyle 16: 5). People in Sodom and Gomorrah wanted to have sex with two angels in Lot's house (Genesis 19: 1-5). Angels can appear in human form and even have human sexual behavior or reproductive ability, which is an ambiguous statement. Why did fallen angels stop doing this later? It seems that God imprisoned fallen angels and they committed this evil crime, so other fallen angels won't do it again (Jude 6). Even the early Hebrew translators agreed with many apocryphal articles that the "son of God" in Genesis 6: 1-4 refers to a fallen angel. Of course, this does not quell the controversy. However, in Genesis 6: 1-4, fallen angels's view of intercourse with human women conforms to the causal relationship between context and grammar and has historical basis.
- Previous article:European fairy tales of werewolves
- Next article:A wonderful passage about the environment in this novel.
- Related articles
- What does cutting mean in tarot cards? How to cut it? Is it horizontal or vertical after arranging the cards according to the card array?
- Gregorian calendar1morning of October 26th1987165438+10. What are the rising signs of the sun and the moon?
- List of trigger conditions of how to trigger frog eggs by Harry Potter magic awakening
- Ask for eight characters and approve them in detail.
- It would be appreciated if an expert could help me write down the names.
- Amano Tooko's role image
- What is primitive culture?
- What is the name of that thing thrown in the palm of your hand in front of the bodhisattva? One positive and one negative, both sides are the same.
- Why do businessmen believe in the power of ghosts and gods?
- House number quality test query