Duke Zhou, Freud and Jung interpret dreams, which is more accurate?

Comparatively speaking, I think the latter two may be close to accuracy, because there is at least a certain theoretical system.

I think LS may have misunderstood Freud's dream interpretation. Please read the introduction of psychoanalysis in detail. He doesn't blindly use symbols to explain dreams (that is, what you say is interpreted as sex), but attaches great importance to free association. Why is the latter basically invisible? The introduction of psychoanalysis mostly talks about free association, so is the book about his dream interpretation really Freud's point of view? Not at all. It's just something written by someone who knows one-sided things.

In short, why? Generally speaking, it is not allowed. The first reason is that, as I mentioned, Freud's main idea of dream interpretation is free association, not symbol. Since it is free association, we should take what we associate as the main criterion for dream interpretation. How can you put the dream in the right place to explain it as in the book? Second, what is the essence of dreams and what role they play are still inconclusive. Then, if the theoretical basis is not perfect and quite imperfect, how can we talk about accurate dream interpretation?